The Bible and Homosexuality


First, the term ‘homosexual’ is relatively new, having entered the English language a mere 150 years ago. There were no words for homosexual in either the two languages of The Bible (Hebrew and Greek) or in the spoken language of Jesus Christ (Aramaic). In fact, it many assume that homosexuality, at least in Old Testament times was probably accepted. The evidence for this lies more in cultural references than biblical:
1. Often the victors in battle would anally rape their defeated enemies

2. It was the custom of the Romans to keep boy slaves as their sexual playthings (a practice that still existed among certain segments of the English aristocracy as recently as the 19th Century, who would be neither prosecuted nor condemned for using their own offspring as sexual playthings).
3. The complete absence of Talmudic evidence. It was not until around 1,000 years after the Torah was written does the Talmud make any reference to homosexuality being sinful. Even though there is an abundance of people being prosecuted for everything from theft to rape to you name it, nowhere is there evidence of anybody being convicted of homosexuality. There can be little doubt that homosexuality existed and it logically follows that several were ‘caught in the act’, so we must assume that far from being an ‘abhorrence to God’ it was considered no big deal.

Follow up:

There were, on the other hand, an abundance of prostitutes present in temples all over Israel and elsewhere. These prostitutes had no sexual preference and it is their very prostitution (not sexual persuasion) that is frequently condemned in The Bible.




The most often quoted biblical reference to God’s condemnation of homosexuality is found in the story of Sodom & Gomorrah - Genesis 19, verses 4 to 7,where the angels, disguised as strangers are in Lot’s house.


4. But before they lay down, the men of the city, even the men of Sodom, compassed the house round, both old and young, all the people from every quarter:
5And they called unto Lot, and said unto him, Where are the men which came in to thee this night? Bring them out unto us, that we may know them.

6And Lot went out at the door unto them, and shut the door after him,
7And said, I pray you, brethren, do not so wickedly.


Here, 2 points spring to mind. The Hebrew word for know (yada) can be translated as either to know intellectually or to ‘know’ carnally. However, in the context of this reference, it is fairly safe to assume that they mean ‘to sexually know’ them. However, the ambiguity is tangible, in that Lot’s objection is to the potential act of homosexual rape, particularly directed towards a guest in his house. The text is further complicated in the following verse (8)where Lot offers up his daughters in exchange.


Behold now, I have two daughters which have not known man; let me, I pray you, bring them out unto you, and do ye to them as is good in your eyes: only unto these men do nothing; for therefore came they under the shadow of my roof.

Conservative Christians often quote this passage as evidence of God’s condemnation of homosexuality, but surely it may be more convincingly understood as God’s condemnation of rape.


The other two commonly used references are found in Deuteronomy:
In Chapter 22, verse 5:


The Woman shall not wear that which pertaineth unto a man, neither shall a man put on a woman’s garment: for all that do so shall be an abomination to the Lord


I feel for transvestites here, gay or straight, but only as far as I feel that its wrong for women to wear jeans – besides, didn’t everybody wear pretty much the same stuff back then?


But the real kicker for the religious conservative seems to be Deuteronomy, Chapter 23, verse 17:


There shall be no whore of the daughters of Israel, nor a sodomite of the sons of Israel.

Well that proves it then, God hates homosexuals. Or, does God hate homosexual rapists (shouldn’t we all?).
But there’s still more to this text. According to the Rev. Jonathan Loppnow and Rev. Paul C. Evans on www.whosoever.org, this is an "error" by the authors of the KJV (King James Version). The word qadesh in the original text was mistranslated as sodomite. Quadesh means "holy one" and is here used to refer to a man who engages in ritual prostitution in the temple. There is little evidence that the prostitutes engaged in sexual activities with men. Other Bible translations use accurate terms such as shrine prostitute, temple prostitute, prostitute and cult prostitute.


References

www.skepticsannotatedbible.com


www.religioustolerance.org


www.dianedew.com


By the way, this is funny. Some guy (TV Oomen) reckons he can prove that God smote Gomorrah by the Sulphur deposits he found on the site. Who funds these expeditions?
Actually I'm looking for funding for my own experiment - to prove the theory "If you're rich enough, nobody will call you stupid" - I reckon I'll need $14 million to get started....



Prove me wrong...please!!!